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Which one of the following statements is correct

> phenobarbital induces respiratory depression, which is enhanced by the consumption of ethanol

Anxiolytic:serotonin -1 A receptor sites

> buspirone  

Indicate ion channels are modulated by benzodiazepine derivatives

> chlorine

Which hypnotic drug has allosteric interaction with a macromolecular complex GAMK leads to more frequent opening of chloride channels

> phenazepam  

Effective drug in managing acute gouty arthritis ; also accelerates closure of patent ductus arteriosus in premature infants

> indomethacin

Aspirin: true answer

> inhibits cyclooxygenase

Mediator most likely to promote pain

> prostaglandins

NSAIDs such as aspirin can produce a type of allergic response in some patients. Which step, if blocked, is responsible for causing this drug allergy

> phospholypasa A-2  

The mechanism of action of montelukast involves

> leukotriene receptor antagonism

Highly selective COX-2 inhibitors are anti-inflammatory drugs with fewer GI side effects compared to aspirin.What other effect do COX -2 inhibitors lack in contrast to aspirin

> antiplatelet  

Mr.X has had history of hemophilia all of his life. He was recently diagnosed with gout. As his pharmacist, which of the following NSAIDs would you recommend

> celecoxib

The oxicams (piroxicam, tenoxicam and meloxicam) are similar to the salicylates EXCEPT they

> have less GI side effects

A patient presents with history of GI irritation and bleeding which of the following should you avoid prescribing

> aspirin

Which group of drugs reduces pain, anti-inflammatory effect and is used for peptic ulcers, enteritis, colitis

> astringents  

Mechanism of action of irritants drugs is

> stimulation of nerve ending of the skin

A patient on a diagnostic test for myasthenia gravis would be expected to have improved neuromuscular function after being treated with

> edrophonium  

A 75-year-old man who was a smoker is diagnosed with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease and suffers from occasional bronchospasm. Which of the following would be effective in treating him

> ipratropium aerosol

Which of the following may precipitate an attack of open-angle glaucoma if instilled into the eye

> atropine  

The prolonged apnea sometimes seen in patients who have undergone an operation in which succinylcholine was used as muscle relaxant has been shown to be due to

> depressed levels of plasma cholinesterase

A 50-year-old male farm worker is brought to the emergency room. He was found confused in the orchard and since then lost consciousness. His heart rate is 45, and his BP is 80/40mmHg.he is sweating and salivating profusely. Which of the following treatments is indicated?

> atropine  

Nondepolarizing neuromuscular blockers are associated with all of the following EXPECT

> initial activation of Ach receptor and depolarization of the motor plate

Which of the following is not an expected symptom of poisoning with isoflurophate

> tachycardia  

Which of following INCORRECTLY matches a cholinergic agonist with a pharmacological action

> physostigmine;decreases intestinal motility

Effects of anticholinesterase agents in therapeutic doses is

> bradycardia  

Purpose of α1-blockers all, expect

 > hypotension

A 68 –year-old man presents to emergency department with acute heart failure. The patient requires immediate drug therapy to improve his cardiac function. Which one of the following drugs would be most beneficial

> dobutamine  

Possible mechanism responsible for opioid –mediated flushing and warming of the skin

> histamine release

Rational for I.V. morphine to manage dyspnea secondary to acute pulmonary edema

> decrease preload

Drug X produces maximal contraction of cardiac muscle in a manner similar to epinephrine (adrenaline). Drug X is considered to be a(n)

> agonist

What is the mistake in this prescription Rp.:Tabulettas Digoxini 0,00025 Da tales doses numero 10 Signa.1 tablet 3 times a day

> mistake in name of the medicinal form  

What is the mistake in this prescription Rp.:Solutionis Atropini sulfatis 0,1% - 10 ml Da.Signa:1 tablet 2 times a day

> mistake in the recipe in instructions to the patient

Which of the following is TRUE regarding bupivacaine

> more potent than procaine  

Which of the following is FALSE regarding procaine

> high potency

Procaine: true answer

metabolized primarily in the liver

Which of the following are the main purposes for adding a vasoconstrictor drug to a local anesthetic

> to increase the duration of anesthetic effect

Which of the following are the main purposes for adding a vasoconstrictor drug to a local anesthetic

> to decrease the risk of systemic overdose toxicity of the drug  

A 14-year-old boy complained of burning pain due to multiple superficial skin abrasions. Which of the following local anesthetics would be appropriate for this boy

> benzocaine

Which of the following statements best explains why the onset of the therapeutic effect of a local anesthetic usually slower in infected tissues

<variant> they have a low extracellular pH, which hinders drug diffusion into the cell

Which of the following molecular events makes the nerve membrane more sensitive to the action of local anesthetics

> increased extracellular concentration of K+

Why benzocaine is not used for infiltration anesthesia

> insoluble in water  

Why procaine cannot be combined with sulfonamides

> is an antagonist of sulfonamides

What factor reduces the effect of procaine in the inflammation

> more acidic environment in the inflammation  

Specify the reason for the low activity of local anesthetics in inflammation

> acidic environment in the inflammation and in ability to go into the base

Mechanism of action of astringents drugs is

> coagulation proteins on the mucosa

Bulk flow of water through membrane pores, resulting from osmotic diffuses across the membrane, transport drug molecules that fit through the membrane pores

> filtration

A drug that rapidly combines with a receptor to initiate a response and rapidly dissociate or release from receptor is called a (an)

> agonist  

Which of the following terms best defines a drug that binds to alpha adrenergic receptors, has no intrinsic activity, and cannot be displaced by epinephrine

> irreversible antagonist

A 16 –year –old girl suffering from seasonal rhinitis started a therapy with loratadine, a drug that binds to H1 histamine receptors. Which of the following terms best defines to the intrinsic ability of a drug to bind to a receptors

> affinity  

Two drugs act on the same tissue through independent receptors, resulting in effects in opposite directions. This is known as

> physiologic antagonism

If a drug is repeatedly administered at dosing intervals that are equal to its elimination half-life, the number of doses required for the plasma concentration of the drug to reach the steady state is

> 4 to 5   

The situation when failure to continue administering the drug results in serious psychological and somatic disturbances is called

> abstinence syndrome

What type of the interaction is associated with impaired of absorption, biotransformation, deposion and excreation of drugs

> pharmacokinetic  

If two drugs with the same effect, taken together, produce an effect that is equal in magnitude to the sum of the effects of the drugs given individually, it is called as

> additive effect

Idiosyncratic reaction of a drug is

 > unpredictable, inherent, qualitatively abnormal reaction to a drug  

Drug products have many types of names. Of the following types of names that are applied to drugs, that one that is the official name and refers only to that drug and not to a particular product is the

> original name

Of the following characteristics, which is unlikely to be associated with the process of facilitated diffusion of drugs

> the drug crosses the membrane against a concentration gradient and the process requires cellular energy  

To the phenomena developing after repeated administration of medical substances is all, except

> idiosyncrasy

You are reviewing the data from several meta-analysis that addressed the most common causes of adverse or otherwise excessive effects of prescription drugs in young adults and in elderly (>60 yeares of age).Interactions between multiple drugs were not considered. Which variable would you find to be decreased, and be the most common general cause of these problems, in the elders

> renal function/clearance

The degree of absorption of drugs when administered orally can be assessed by using this indicator

>bioavailability

When drug administrated enteral, then its bioavailability is determined by

>degree of absorption and metabolism at the first passage through the liver  

Types of drug transport through the membrane are all, EXCEPT

>enzyme inhibition

What is typical for drugs that bound with plasma protein

>do not have pharmacological activity  

Changes of drugs under the influence of microsomal liver enzymes

>increase hydrophilicity

Changes of drugs under the influence of microsomal liver enzymes

>increase polarity  

Changes of drugs under the influence of microsomal liver enzymes

>decrease pharmacological activity

The rate of biotransformation of most drugs is increasing

>in hepatic microsomal enzyme induction  

Metabolites that resulting from the biotransformation of drugs

>more polar

The area under the curve (AUC), reflecting dependence of time variation of a substance concentration in plasma after enteral administration

>used to calculate bioavailability of substance  

How does change renal excretion of weak electrolytes when increased their ionization

>increases

Factors that affecting to total clearance of drug substances

>excretion rate  

Intense binding of drugs with plasma proteins

>decreases volume of distribution

What methods of drug administration doesn’t undergo by presystemic (first pass) elimination

>intravenous  

What methods of drug administration doesn’t undergo by presystemic (first pass) elimination

>rectal

What methods of drug administration doesn’t undergo by presystemic elimination

>sublingual  

Features of rectal route of drug administration compared with oral

> drug less neutralized in liver

The substance most rapidly excreted from the body if it is in the kidneys

> filtered and secreted  

For acceleration of substance excretion of the basic character from the body needs

> to acidify urine

For acceleration of substance excretion of the acid character from the body needs

> to produce alkalization of urine  

The transfer of drugs through the membrane from the low concentration to a space with high concentration is called

> active transport

The main direction of biotransformation reaction with the participation of cytochrome P-450

<make molecule more hydrophilic  

The drug gets into the blood stream, bypassing liver barrier, when used in the form

> oral                      

The degree of drug binding with blood proteins DOES NOT depend on

> pharmacodynamics  

Hypoproteinemia leads to increased action of drugs, because

> increases free fraction of drug that manifesting pharmacological effects

Lipophilic drugs penetrate the membrane at a speed proportional to the concentration gradient and the distribution coefficient (lipid/water) in the following way

> simple diffusion  

Which parameter characterizes the amount of drug that entered to the systemic circulation

> bioavailability

Which parameter reflects the degree of clearance from drugs

> clearance  

Correct statements listing characteristics of a parenteral route of drug administration include all of the following EXCEPT

> inhalation provides slow access to the general circulation

For the calculation of the volume of distribution (Vd) one must take into account

> concentration of a substance in plasma  

Pick out the right statement

> microsomal oxidation results in an increase of ionization and water solubility of a drug

Adverse effect on embryo unaccompanied by the development of congenital malformations is called

> embryotoxic action

Choose the drug, a derivative of adamantane

> rimantadine  

Tick the drug, inhibiting viral DNA synthesis

> acyclovir

Name the drug used for influenza A prevention

> rimantadine  

Tick the antiviral drug which belongs to endogenous proteins

> interferon alfa

The mechanism of action by which pyrantel pamoate is effective for treatment of Necator americanus (hookworm) is

> inhibition of neuromuscular transmission  

Thiabendazole, a benzimidazole derivative, is antihelminthic drug used primary to treat infections caused by

> strongyloides

The drug of choice for the treatment of T.saginata (tapeworm) is

> niclosamide  

The drug of choice for treatment of Schistosoma haematobium is

> prazoquantel

Tick the drug, blocking acetylcholine transmission at the myoneural junction of helminthes

> piperazine  

Tick the drug for nematodosis (roundworm invasion) treatment

> pyrantel

The mechanism of action of chloroquine in Plasmodium falciparum malaria is elimination of

> asexual forms  

Which drug is used to suppress the erythrocytic phase of malaria

> quinidine

Which drug is used to suppress the erythrocytic phase of malaria

> chloroquine  

What is characteristic of active transport of drugs through membrane

>can be against the concentration gradient

The absorption of drugs from intestine against the concentration gradient may be provided by

>active transport  

The intensity of passive diffusion of drug substances through the cell membrane is determined by

>transmembrane concentration gradient of substance

The intensity of passive diffusion of drug substances through membranes determined by

>lipophilic degree of substance

Thick the drug, inhibiting M2-protein

  rimantadine

What mediator causes elevation of hypothalamic set- point for temperature control

> PGE-2

What are some mediators for pyrogens

> PGE2  

Which mediators of inflammation are acted on by NSAIDs

> arachidonic acid  and metabolites, such as prostaglandins, thromboxanes, and leukortrienes

Histamine stimulates what type of cell in the stomach

> parietal cells  

Which type of cell is histamine mostly produced in

> mast cell

Which of the following is the most frequent side effect of H-1 antihistamines that is less common with second generation antihistamines

> sedation  

Which one of following agents could significant impair the ability to drive an automobile

> diphenhydramine

What is the mechanism of antimicrobial action of potassium permanganate

violation of oxidation-reductive processes  

What antiseptic stimulates the respiratory center of the medulla

> ammonia spirit

What test is important to perform while on isoniazid

> liver enzymes  

What are some measures to be taken when using aminoglycosides

> conduct a hearing test

What classes of drugs are: erythromycin and azithromycin

> macrolides  

Along with penicillin this line of drugs also contain a beta-lactam that is responsible for their antimicrobial activity

> cephalosporins

What drug class are these ciprofloxacin and levofloxacin

> fluoroquiolones  

What classes is these drug : doxycycline

> tetracyclines

What product should not be taken with tetracyclines

> milk

The greatest number of antimicrobic allergies is reported for what drug

> penicillins

Propertiesoftetracycline

> drug of choice in treating typhus  

Synergisticantimicrobialcombination

> amoxicillin- gentamycin

Which drug would not appropriate to treat the septicemia

> phenoxymethyl penicillin  

Antibacterials regarded as generally safe to prescribe in pregnancy

> erythromycin

Suitable for treatment of bacterial meningitis caused by H.influenzae

> cefotaxime  

Which fluoroquinolones is preferred to treat pneumonia

> levofloxacin

Which of the following is not sensitive to fluoroquinolones

  > MRSA  

Which of the following is not particularly sensitive to fluoroquinolones

> staphylococcus

What is important adverse effects for fluoroquinolones

> phototoxicity

In what diseases do not apply fluoroquinolones

 > liver/ hepatosepsis

Impaired vision causes

> ethambutol  

What drug does not cause dysbiosis

> isoniazid

Antagonist of para-aminobenzoic is

> sodium para-aminosalicylate  

What drug does not dysbiosis

> streptomycin

What drug affects only on a tubercle bacillus

 > ethionamide  

Tick the drug, which is effective against only M.tuberculosis

> isoniazid

Tick the antimycobacterial drug belonging to first-line agents

> isoniazid  

Tick the antitubercular drug, having the least activity

> PAS

Tick the antimycobacterial drug – hydrazide of isonicotinic acid

> isoniazid  

Mechanism of Izoniazid action is

> inhibition of mycolic acids synthesis

Mechanism of Rifampin action is

> inhibition of DNA dependent RNA polymerase  

Mechanism of Streptomycin action is

> inhibition of protein synthesis

Isoniazid has following unwanted effect

> hepatotoxicity, peripheral neuropathy  

Ethambutol has the following unwanted effect

> retrobulbar neuritis with red-green color blindness

Streptomycin has the following unwanted effect

> ototoxicity, nephrotoxicity  

Mechanism of aminosalicylic acid action is

> inhibition of folate synthesis

What is the mechanism of action of isoniazid

> inhibit mycolic acid  

Chronic candidiasis infections of the GI tract and oral cavity are treated with agent in pill form

> fluconazole

Which of the following drug belongs to polyene antifungal agents

> nystatin  

Which of the following drug is more effective for candidiasis

> fluconazole

Which of the following is the fungi static mechanism of action of griseofulvin

> disruption of the synthesis of nucleic proteins  

Which of the following antifungal drug has anti-androgenic effects

> ketoconazole

Which drug has the highest toxicity

> amphotericin B